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Old Aug 16, 2017 | 08:13 PM
  #11  
WytchDctr's Avatar
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Per a quick google for manslaughter vs murder; manslaughter: "the crime of killing a human being without malice aforethought, or otherwise in circumstances not amounting to murder."



No malice aforethought?



malice aforethought

n. 1) the conscious intent to cause death or great bodily harm to another person before a person commits the crime. Such malice is a required element to prove first-degree murder. 2) a general evil and depraved state of mind in which the person is unconcerned for the lives of others. Thus, if a person uses a gun to hold up a bank and an innocent bystander is killed in a shoot-out with police, there is malice aforethought.http://dictionary.law.com/Default.aspx?selected=1198



So to say it was manslaughter would mean he didn't mean to hurt people driving like that into a crowd? Because he was just driving " way too fast down the street where people were gathered" would make it a what?



"Before he hit the crowd and much more after, people were beating on his car" <- WAT,.. really? At the speed he hit the crowd you can't count them rolling over the hood and landing on the trunk as beating on it before he smashed into another car.
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Old Aug 17, 2017 | 09:12 PM
  #12  
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Underreported: the dude is a no-kidding crazy person. Maybe he just lost his mind again, that's for the jury to figure out.
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